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Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
#2884552 08/28/19 04:14 PM
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Nantes Offline OP
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[Linked Image]

In the slurs indicated by the arrows, why is the slur beginning from the bottom note of the chord instead of from the top of the chord? Unless there would be a difference in meaning when beginning from the top, all this seems to do it make it that much more likely for the slur to be confused with a tie. Thus, I want to know if there is indeed a difference in meaning or why it was notated this way. Thank you!

Re: Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
Nantes #2884557 08/28/19 04:27 PM
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Schoenberg wants to show that the melodic line goes bb-a b-f.

Re: Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
Eric399 #2884560 08/28/19 04:32 PM
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Originally Posted by Eric399
Schoenberg wants to show that the melodic line goes bb-a b-f.


Hmm, but these are still slurs right? Every one of the 3 notes of the chord should "flow into" the A or F despite the slur starting on one note only, right?

Re: Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
Nantes #2884602 08/28/19 06:59 PM
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Originally Posted by Nantes
Originally Posted by Eric399
Schoenberg wants to show that the melodic line goes bb-a b-f.


Hmm, but these are still slurs right? Every one of the 3 notes of the chord should "flow into" the A or F despite the slur starting on one note only, right?


I don't think I have ever seen that arrangement of beams and slurs before (maybe I'm not too observant blush). But it makes sense, as that would be "leading with the thumb" for the melodic line.

Usually, that would be written with up stems and beams above, with slurs below. But the pitches are high enough on the staff to use down stems.


WhoDwaldi
Howard (by Kawai) 5' 10"
Re: Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
Nantes #2884606 08/28/19 07:18 PM
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Well, 1-1 2-1 on the bottom. 😁


WhoDwaldi
Howard (by Kawai) 5' 10"
Re: Why is the slur beginning from one note and not the chord?
Nantes #2886404 09/02/19 10:19 PM
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Originally Posted by Nantes
Originally Posted by Eric399
Schoenberg wants to show that the melodic line goes bb-a b-f.


Hmm, but these are still slurs right? Every one of the 3 notes of the chord should "flow into" the A or F despite the slur starting on one note only, right?


If you know that the melodic line goes B flat-A and that the upper two notes are background, you will want to voice the B flat more prominently (louder) than the upper two notes. You would, I suppose, be justified in letting go of the upper two notes an instant before the B flat moves legato to the A, but that's kind of fiddly and much less important sound-wise than just voicing the B flat the loudest.


Heather W. Reichgott, piano

Working on:
Beethoven - Diabelli Variations Op. 120
Beethoven/Liszt - Symphony no. 7
Tommy (whole show)

I love Haydn, Mozart, Beethoven and new music

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